NEW 2024 Certification Sample Questions CTPRP Dumps & Practice Exam

CTPRP Deluxe Study Guide with Online Test Engine

NEW QUESTION # 25
The set of shared values and beliefs that govern a company's attitude toward risk is known as:

• A. Risk tolerance
• B. Risk treatment
• C. Risk culture
• D. Risk appetite

Answer: C

Explanation:
Risk culture is the term used to describe the collective way that an organization thinks about, manages, and responds to risk. It is influenced by the organization's values, beliefs, norms, and practices, as well as the external environment and stakeholders. Risk culture affects how employees perceive, communicate, and act on risk issues, and how they balance risk and reward in their decision making. A strong risk culture is one that supports the organization's strategic objectives, fosters accountability and transparency, and promotes learning and improvement. A weak risk culture is one that undermines the organization's risk management framework, creates silos and conflicts, and exposes the organization to excessive or unnecessary risks. References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 13, section 2.1.1
* GARP Best Practices Guidance for Third Party Risk, page 5, section 2.1
* Organizational culture | Definition, Benefits and Challenges

NEW QUESTION # 26
Which statement is FALSE when describing the differences between security vulnerabilities and security defects?

• A. Security defects should be treated as exploitable vulnerabilities
• B. A security defect is a security flaw identified in an application due to poor coding practices
• C. Security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous
• D. A security defect can become a security vulnerability if undetected after migration into production

Answer: C

Explanation:
Security vulnerabilities and security defects are not synonymous, but rather different concepts that relate to the security of software products or services. A security vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in the software that can be exploited by an attacker to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or data12. A security defect is a mistake or error in the software code that causes the software to behave in an unexpected or incorrect way34. A security defect may or may not lead to a security vulnerability, depending on the context and impact of the defect. For example, a security defect that causes a buffer overflow may result in a security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary code on the system. However, a security defect that causes a spelling error in the user interface may not pose a security risk at all.
Security vulnerabilities and security defects have different causes, consequences, and solutions. Security vulnerabilities are often caused by design flaws, logic errors, or insufficient security controls in the software12. Security defects are often caused by poor coding practices, lack of testing, or human mistakes in the software development process34. Security vulnerabilities can have severe consequences for the software users, providers, and stakeholders, such as data breaches, identity theft, fraud, or sabotage12. Security defects can have various consequences for the software functionality, performance, or usability, such as crashes, glitches, or bugs34. Security vulnerabilities require proactive and reactive measures to prevent, detect, and mitigate the potential attacks, such as security testing, patching, monitoring, and incident response12. Security defects require corrective and preventive measures to identify, resolve, and avoid the errors, such as code review, debugging, refactoring, and quality assurance34.
Therefore, the statement that security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous is FALSE. They are distinct but related aspects of software security that require different approaches and techniques to address them. References: 1: What is a Software Vulnerability? | Veracode 2: Software Security: differences between vulnerabilities and Defects 3: What is a Software Defect? - Definition from Techopedia 4: Are vulnerabilities discovered and resolved like other defects? - Springer

NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following is a positive aspect of adhering to a secure SDLC?

• A. Promotes a "check the box" compliance approach
• B. A process that defines and meets both the business requirements and the security requirements
• C. A process that forces quality code repositories management
• D. Enables the process if system code is managed in different IT silos

Answer: B

Explanation:
A secure SDLC is a framework that integrates security best practices and standards throughout the software development life cycle, from planning to deployment and maintenance. A secure SDLC aims to ensure that security is considered and implemented at every stage of the development process, not just as an afterthought or a compliance check. A secure SDLC can help organizations to achieve the following benefits12:
* Reduce the risk of security breaches and incidents by identifying and mitigating vulnerabilities early and continuously
* Improve the quality and reliability of software products by ensuring that they meet both the functional and the security requirements
* Save time and money by avoiding costly rework, remediation, and reputation damage caused by security flaws
* Enhance customer trust and satisfaction by delivering secure and compliant software solutions
* Foster a culture of security awareness and responsibility among developers, testers, and other stakeholders References:
* Secure SDLC | Secure Software Development Life Cycle | Snyk
* What is Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SSDLC )? - GeeksforGeeks

NEW QUESTION # 28
Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of questionnaires in third party risk assessments?

• A. Questionnaires are optional since reliance on contract terms is a sufficient control
• B. Assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated
• C. All topic areas included in the questionnaire require validation during the assessment
• D. The total number of questions included in the questionnaire assigns the risk tier

Answer: B

Explanation:
Questionnaires are one of the most common and effective tools for conducting third party risk assessments.
They help organizations gather information about the security and compliance practices of their vendors and service providers, as well as identify any gaps or weaknesses that may pose a risk to the organization.
However, not all questionnaires are created equal. Depending on the nature and scope of the third party relationship, different types and levels of questions may be required to adequately assess the risk. Therefore, it is important to configure the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated12.
The risk rating of a third party is determined by various factors, such as the criticality of the service they provide, the sensitivity of the data they handle, the regulatory requirements they must comply with, and the potential impact of a breach or disruption on the organization. The higher the risk rating, the more detailed and comprehensive the questionnaire should be. For example, a high-risk third party that processes personal or financial data may require a questionnaire that covers multiple domains of security and privacy, such as data protection, encryption, access control, incident response, and audit. A low-risk third party that provides a non-critical service or does not handle sensitive data may require a questionnaire that covers only the basic security controls, such as firewall, antivirus, and password policy12.
The type of service that a third party provides also influences the configuration of the questionnaire. Different services may have different security and compliance standards and best practices that need to be addressed.
For example, a third party that provides cloud-based services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as cloud security architecture, data residency, service level agreements, and disaster recovery. A third party that provides software development services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as software development life cycle, code review, testing, and vulnerability management12.
By configuring the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated, organizations can ensure that they ask the right questions to the right third parties, and obtain relevant and meaningful information to support their risk management decisions. Therefore, the statement that assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated is TRUE12. References: 1: How to Use SIG Questionnaires for Better Third-Party Risk Management 2:
Third-party risk assessment questionnaires - KPMG India

NEW QUESTION # 29
You receive a call from a vendor that two laptops and a tablet are missing that were used to process your company data. The asset loss occurred two years ago, but was only recently discovered. That statement may indicate that this vendor is lacking an adequate:

• A. Physical and Environmental Security Program
• B. Information Security Incident Notification Policy
• C. Data Loss Prevention Program
• D. Asset Management Program

Answer: D

Explanation:
The scenario described indicates a lack in the vendor's Asset Management Program. An effective Asset Management Program includes maintaining an accurate inventory of hardware and devices, monitoring their status, and promptly identifying and responding to any losses or discrepancies. The failure to discover the loss of laptops and a tablet that processed company data for two years suggests deficiencies in tracking and managing physical assets. This lapse can lead to risks associated with data security, regulatory compliance, and operational integrity. A robust Asset Management Program should ensure that all assets are accounted for, their usage is monitored, and any anomalies or losses are quickly identified and addressed.
References:
* IT asset management standards, such as ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management), emphasize the importance of maintaining an inventory of assets and implementing appropriate controls to safeguard
* organizational assets.
* The "IT Asset Management Handbook" by the International Association of IT Asset Managers (IAITAM) provides guidelines on establishing a comprehensive Asset Management Program, including best practices for asset tracking, monitoring, and loss prevention.

NEW QUESTION # 30
When evaluating compliance artifacts for change management, a robust process should include the following attributes:

• A. Communications, approval, auditable.
• B. Logging, approvals, validation, back-out and exception procedures
• C. Logging, approval, back-out.
• D. Approval, validation, auditable.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Change management is the process of controlling and documenting any changes to the scope, objectives, requirements, deliverables, or resources of a project or a program. Change management ensures that the impact of any change is assessed and communicated to all stakeholders, and that the changes are implemented in a controlled and coordinated manner. Compliance artifacts are the documents, records, or reports that demonstrate the adherence to the change management process and the regulatory or industry standards.
A robust change management process should include the following attributes:
* Logging: This means that any change request or proposal is recorded in a change log or a change register, along with the details of the change initiator, the change description, the change category, the change priority, the change status, and the change history. Logging helps to track and monitor the progress and outcome of each change, and to provide an audit trail for compliance purposes.
* Approvals: This means that any change request or proposal is reviewed and approved by the appropriate authority or stakeholder, such as the project manager, the sponsor, the customer, the steering committee, or the regulatory body. Approvals help to ensure that the change is justified, feasible, aligned with the project or program objectives, and acceptable to the affected parties.
* Validation: This means that any change request or proposal is verified and tested to ensure that it meets the quality standards, the functional and non-functional requirements, and the expected benefits and outcomes. Validation helps to ensure that the change is implemented correctly, effectively, and efficiently, and that it does not introduce any errors, defects, or risks.
* Back-out and exception procedures: This means that any change request or proposal has a contingency plan or a rollback plan in case the change fails, causes problems, or is rejected. Back-out and exception procedures help to minimize the negative impact of the change, and to restore the original state or the baseline of the project or program. They also help to handle any deviations or issues that may arise during the change implementation or the change review.
References:
* CTPRP Job Guide
* An Agile Approach to Change Management
* CM Overview
* Management Artifacts and its Types
* Achieving Regulatory and Industry Standards Compliance with the Scaled Agile Framework
* 8 Steps for an Effective Change Management Process

NEW QUESTION # 31
When working with third parties, which of the following requirements does not reflect a "Zero Trust" approach to access management?

• A. Ensure that access is granted on a per session basis regardless of network location, user, or device
• B. Implement device monitoring, continual inspection and monitoring of logs/traffic
• C. Utilizing a solution that allows direct access by third parties to the organization's network
• D. Require that all communication is secured regardless of network location

Answer: C

Explanation:
A Zero Trust approach to access management is based on the principle of verifying every access request as if it originates from an open network, regardless of the source, destination, or context. This means that no implicit trust is granted based on network location, user identity, or device status. Instead, every access request is evaluated based on multiple factors, such as user credentials, device health, data sensitivity, and threat intelligence. A Zero Trust approach also requires that all communication is encrypted and protected, and that access is granted on a per session basis with the least privilege principle123.
Utilizing a solution that allows direct access by third parties to the organization's network does not reflect a Zero Trust approach, because it implies that the network perimeter is a reliable boundary for security and trust.
This assumption is risky, because it exposes the organization to potential breaches and attacks from compromised or malicious third parties, who may have access to sensitive data and resources without proper verification or protection. A Zero Trust approach would require that third parties use secure and isolated channels to access the organization's network, such as VPNs, proxies, or gateways, and that their access is monitored and controlled based on granular policies and conditions123. References:
* Zero Trust part 1: Identity and access management
* Zero Trust Model - Modern Security Architecture | Microsoft Security
* Zero Trust identity and access management development best practices ...

NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a virtual assessment:

• A. Virtual assessment agendas and planning should identify who should be available for interviews
• B. Virtual assessments include using interviews with subject matter experts since controls evaluation and testing cannot be performed virtually
• C. Virtual assessments should be used to validate or confirm understanding of key controls, and not be used simply to review questionnaire responses
• D. Virtual assessment planning should identify what documentation is available for review prior to and during the assessment

Answer: B

Explanation:
Virtual assessments are a method of conducting third party risk assessments remotely, using various tools and techniques to collect and verify information about the third party's controls, processes, and performance.
Virtual assessments can be used to evaluate various risk domains, such as information security, privacy, resiliency, and compliance, depending on the scope and objectives of the assessment. Virtual assessments can also be used to complement or supplement onsite assessments, especially when travel or access restrictions are in place.
One of the key components of virtual assessments is the use of interviews with subject matter experts (SMEs) from the third party, who can provide insights and clarifications on the third party's policies, procedures, practices, and evidence. Interviews can also be used to validate or confirm the understanding of key controls, and not just to review questionnaire responses. However, interviews are not the only way to perform controls evaluation and testing in virtual assessments. Other methods include:
* Requesting and reviewing documentation and artifacts from the third party, such as policies, standards, certifications, attestations, test results, audit reports, or incident logs, that demonstrate the implementation and effectiveness of the controls.
* Performing live or recorded demonstrations of the controls, such as showing how the third party monitors, detects, and responds to security incidents, or how the third party encrypts, backs up, and restores data.
* Using remote access tools or platforms, such as screen sharing, video conferencing, or web portals, to observe and verify the controls in action, such as checking the configuration settings, access rights, or patch levels of the third party's systems or applications.
* Using independent or external sources of information, such as ratings, benchmarks, or feedback, to validate and compare the third party's performance, compliance, or reputation.
Therefore, the statement that virtual assessments include using interviews with SMEs since controls evaluation and testing cannot be performed virtually is false, as there are other ways to perform controls evaluation and testing in virtual assessments, besides interviews.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments, a leading provider of third party risk management solutions, offers a comprehensive guide for Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) candidates, which covers the core concepts and best practices of third party risk management, including virtual assessments.
* 2: Schneider Downs, a professional services firm, provides a blog post on the best practices for conducting third party risk management virtual assessments, which includes the methods and steps for performing controls evaluation and testing remotely.
* 3: Shared Assessments, a leading provider of third party risk management solutions, offers a blog post on the value and challenges of virtual assessments, which includes the benefits and drawbacks of using interviews and other techniques for controls evaluation and testing.

NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following BEST describes the distinction between a regulation and a standard?

• A. There is no distinction, regulations and standards are the same and have equal impact
• B. A standard must be adhered to by companies based on the industry they are in, while regulations are voluntary.
• C. A regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies "can voluntarily choose to follow standards.
• D. Standards are always a subset of a regulation

Answer: C

Explanation:
A regulation is a rule of order having the force of law, prescribed by a superior or competent authority, relating to the actions of those under the authority's control. Regulations are issued by various government departments and agencies to carry out the intent of legislation enacted by the legislature of the applicable jurisdiction. Regulations also function to ensure uniform application of the law. A standard is a guideline established generally by private-sector bodies and that are available for use by any person or organization, private or government. The term includes what are commonly referred to as 'industry standards' as well as
'consensus standards'. Standards are developed through a voluntary process of collaboration and consensus among stakeholders, such as manufacturers, consumers, regulators, and experts. Standards may reflect best practices, technical specifications, performance criteria, or quality requirements. Standards do not have the force of law unless they are adopted or referenced by a regulation. Therefore, a regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies can voluntarily choose to follow standards that are relevant and beneficial to their operations, products, or services. References:
* The Difference Between Regulations and Standards
* Regulations vs Standards: Clearing Up the Confusion - AEM
* Standards vs. Regulations
* Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide

NEW QUESTION # 34
Which statement reflects a requirement that is NOT typically found in a formal Information Security Incident Management Program?

• A. The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery
• B. The program includes the definition of internal escalation processes
• C. The program includes mechanisms for notification to clients
• D. The program includes protocols for disclosure of information to external parties

Answer: A

Explanation:
An Information Security Incident Management Program is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to prevent, detect, respond to, and recover from information security incidents. An information security incident is any event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information assets, systems, or services12. A formal Information Security Incident Management Program typically includes the following components12:
* The definition of internal escalation processes: This component defines the roles and responsibilities, communication channels, and reporting mechanisms for escalating and managing information security incidents within the organization. It also establishes the criteria and thresholds for determining the severity and impact of incidents, and the appropriate level of response and escalation.
* The protocols for disclosure of information to external parties: This component defines the rules and guidelines for disclosing information about information security incidents to external stakeholders, such as customers, regulators, law enforcement, media, or other third parties. It also specifies the legal and contractual obligations, the timing and frequency, the format and content, and the approval and authorization processes for disclosure.
* The mechanisms for notification to clients: This component defines the methods and procedures for notifying clients or customers who may be affected by information security incidents. It also specifies the objectives, scope, and content of notification, as well as the timing and frequency, the delivery channels, and the feedback and follow-up mechanisms.
* The processes in support of disaster recovery: This component defines the steps and actions for restoring the normal operations of the organization after a major information security incident that causes
* significant disruption or damage to the information assets, systems, or services. It also specifies the roles and responsibilities, the resources and tools, the backup and recovery plans, and the testing and validation procedures for disaster recovery.
The statement that reflects a requirement that is NOT typically found in a formal Information Security Incident Management Program is D. The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery. While disaster recovery is an important aspect of information security, it is not a specific component of an Information Security Incident Management Program. Rather, it is a separate program that covers the broader scope of business continuity and resilience, and may involve other types of disasters besides information security incidents, such as natural disasters, power outages, or pandemics3 . Therefore, the correct answer is D. The program includes processes in support of disaster recovery. References: 1: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide 2: Develop and Implement a Security Incident Management Program 3: Business Continuity Management vs Disaster Recovery : What is the difference between disaster recovery and security incident response?

NEW QUESTION # 35
Which action statement BEST describes an assessor calculating residual risk?

• A. The assessor adjusts the vendor risk rating based on changes to the risk level after analyzing the findings and mitigating controls
• B. The assessor adjusts the vendor risk rating prior to reporting the findings to the business unit
• C. The assessor recommends implementing continuous monitoring for the next 18 months
• D. The business unit closes out the finding prior to the assessor submitting the final report

Answer: A

Explanation:
When calculating residual risk, the best practice for an assessor is to adjust the vendor risk rating based on the changes to the risk level after analyzing the findings and considering the effectiveness of mitigating controls.
Residual risk refers to the level of risk that remains after controls are applied to mitigate the initial (inherent) risk. By evaluating the findings from a third-party assessment and factoring in the mitigating controls implemented by the vendor, the assessor can more accurately determine the remaining risk level. This adjusted risk rating provides a more realistic view of the vendor's risk profile, aiding in informed decision-making regarding risk management and vendor oversight.
References:
* The concept of residual risk calculation is discussed in risk management frameworks such as ISO 31000 (Risk Management - Guidelines), which guides the assessment and treatment of risks.
* The "Third-Party Risk Management Guide" by ISACA outlines the process of assessing and managing risks associated with third parties, including the calculation of residual risk.

NEW QUESTION # 36
A visual representation of locations, users, systems and transfer of personal information between outsourcers and third parties is defined as:

• A. Data flow diagram
• B. Configuration standard
• C. Network diagram
• D. Audit log report

Answer: A

Explanation:
A data flow diagram (DFD) is a graphical representation of the flow of information between outsourcers and third parties, as well as within a system or process. It shows the sources and destinations of data, the processes that transform data, the data stores that hold data, and the data flows that connect them. A DFD can help to understand and refine the business processes or systems that involve data exchange with external entities. A DFD can also help to identify potential risks and vulnerabilities in the data flows, such as data leakage, data corruption, data loss, or unauthorized access.
The other options are incorrect because they do not match the definition of a visual representation of data flows. A configuration standard (A) is a set of rules or guidelines that define how a system or process should be configured, such as hardware, software, or network settings. An audit log report (B) is a record of the activities or events that occurred in a system or process, such as user actions, system changes, or security incidents. A network diagram is a graphical representation of the physical or logical connections between devices or nodes in a network, such as routers, switches, servers, or computers. References:
https://www.visual-paradigm.com/tutorials/data-flow-diagram-dfd.jsp
https://www.lucidchart.com/pages/data-flow-diagram

NEW QUESTION # 37
Which cloud deployment model is focused on the management of hardware equipment?

• A. Function as a service
• B. Infrastructure as a service
• C. Software as a service
• D. Platform as a service

Answer: B

Explanation:
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a cloud deployment model that provides users with access to virtualized hardware resources, such as servers, storage, and network devices. Users can install and run their own operating systems and applications on the cloud infrastructure, and have full control over the configuration and management of the hardware equipment. IaaS is suitable for organizations that need high scalability, flexibility, and customization of their cloud environment. IaaS is different from other cloud deployment models, such as function as a service (FaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), and software as a service (SaaS), which provide users with higher-level services and abstract away the underlying hardware details. References:
* Cloud Infrastructure: 4 Key Components and Deployment Models
* Cloud Deployment Models - GeeksforGeeks
* On-Premises Cloud Deployment Model: Organization-Owned Hardware Explained

NEW QUESTION # 38
Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?

• A. To communicate the status of findings identified in vendor assessments and escalate issues es needed
• B. To develop and provide periodic reporting to management based on TPRM results
• C. To communicate the status of policy compliance with TPRM onboarding, periodic assessment and off-boarding requirements
• D. To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings

Answer: D

Explanation:
The purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics is to inform and align the organization's stakeholders on the status, progress, and outcomes of the TPRM program.
This includes communicating the results of vendor assessments, the compliance level of the organization's policies and procedures, and the periodic reporting to management and other relevant parties. However, documenting the corrective action plan between external parties is not an internal communication, but rather an external one. This is because the corrective action plan is a formal agreement between the organization and the vendor to address and resolve the issues identified in the assessment. Therefore, this statement is not an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics. References:
* 15 KPIs & Metrics to Measure the Success of Your TPRM Program
* Third-party risk management metrics: Best practices to enhance your program
* 3 Best Third-Party Risk Management Software Solutions (2024)

NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following factors is MOST important when assessing the risk of shadow IT in organizational security?

• A. The organization requires security training and certification for security personnel
• B. The organization maintains adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions
• C. The organization defines staffing levels to address impact of any turnover in security roles
• D. The organization's resources and investment are sufficient to meet security requirements

Answer: B

Explanation:
Shadow IT is the use and management of any IT technologies, solutions, services, projects, and infrastructure without formal approval and support of internal IT departments. Shadow IT can pose significant security risks to the organization, such as data breaches, compliance violations, malware infections, or network disruptions.
Therefore, assessing and mitigating the risk of shadow IT is an essential part of organizational security.
One of the most important factors when assessing the risk of shadow IT is whether the organization maintains adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions. Policies and procedures are the documents that define the organization's security objectives, standards, roles, responsibilities, and processes. They provide guidance and direction for the organization's security activities, such as risk assessment, vendor management, incident response, data protection, access control, etc. They also establish the expectations and requirements for the organization's employees, vendors, and other stakeholders regarding the use and management of IT resources.
By maintaining adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions, the organization can:
* Educate and inform its employees about the security risks and implications of shadow IT, and the benefits and advantages of using authorized and supported IT resources.
* Establish and enforce clear and consistent rules and boundaries for the use and management of IT resources, and the consequences and penalties for violating them.
* Monitor and audit the compliance and performance of its employees, vendors, and other stakeholders regarding the use and management of IT resources, and identify and address any deviations or issues.
* Review and update its policies and procedures regularly, and communicate any changes or updates to its employees, vendors, and other stakeholders.
By doing so, the organization can reduce the likelihood and impact of shadow IT, and increase the visibility and accountability of its IT environment. The organization can also foster a culture of security awareness and responsibility among its employees, vendors, and other stakeholders, and encourage them to report and resolve any shadow IT incidents or problems.
The other factors, such as the organization's security training and certification, staffing levels, and resources and investment, are also relevant for assessing the risk of shadow IT, but they are not as important as the organization's policies and procedures. Security training and certification can help the organization's security personnel to acquire and maintain the necessary skills and knowledge to deal with shadow IT, but they do not address the root causes or motivations of shadow IT. Staffing levels can affect the organization's ability to detect and respond to shadow IT, but they do not prevent or deter shadow IT from occurring. Resources and investment can enable the organization to provide adequate and appropriate IT resources to its employees, vendors, and other stakeholders, but they do not guarantee the satisfaction or compliance of those parties.
References:
* : Shadow IT Explained: Risks & Opportunities - BMC Software
* : What is Shadow IT? | IBM
* : Shadow IT: What Are the Risks and How Can You Mitigate Them? - Ekran System
* : Policies and Procedures - Shared Assessments

NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is NOT a key component of TPRM requirements in the software development life cycle (SDLC)?

• A. Process for fixing security defects
• B. Software security testing
• C. Process for data destruction and disposal
• D. Maintenance of artifacts that provide proof that SOLC gates are executed

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the context of Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) requirements within the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), a process for data destruction and disposal is not typically considered a key component. The primary focus within SDLC in TPRM is on ensuring secure software development practices, which includes maintaining artifacts to prove that SDLC gates are executed, conducting software security testing, and having processes in place for fixing security defects. While data destruction and disposal are important security considerations, they are generally associated with data lifecycle management and information security management practices rather than being integral to the SDLC process itself.
References:
* Best practices in secure software development, as outlined in frameworks like the Secure Software Development Framework (SSDF) by NIST, emphasize the importance of secure coding, vulnerability
* testing, and remediation processes rather than data disposal practices.
* The "Software Security Framework (SSF)" by the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) provides guidance on integrating security practices into the SDLC, focusing on areas like threat modeling, secure coding, and security testing.

NEW QUESTION # 41
At which level of reporting are changes in TPRM program metrics rare and exceptional?

• A. Board of Directors
• B. Business unit
• C. Risk committee
• D. Executive management

Answer: A

Explanation:
TPRM program metrics are the indicators that measure the performance, effectiveness, and maturity of the TPRM program. They help to monitor and communicate the progress, achievements, and challenges of the TPRM program to various stakeholders, such as business units, executive management, risk committees, and board of directors. However, the level of reporting and the frequency of changes in TPRM program metrics vary depending on the stakeholder's role, responsibility, and interest123:
* Business unit: This level of reporting is focused on the operational aspects of the TPRM program, such as the status of vendor assessments, remediation actions, issues, and incidents. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are frequent and granular, as they reflect the day-to-day activities and outcomes of the TPRM program.
* Executive management: This level of reporting is focused on the strategic aspects of the TPRM program, such as the alignment with the business objectives, the compliance with the regulatory requirements, the management of the key risks, and the optimization of the resources and costs. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are less frequent and more aggregated, as they reflect the overall direction and performance of the TPRM program.
* Risk committee: This level of reporting is focused on the oversight aspects of the TPRM program, such as the evaluation of the risk appetite, the review of the risk profile, the approval of the risk policies, and the escalation of the risk issues. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are occasional and more analytical, as they reflect the governance and assurance of the TPRM program.
* Board of Directors: This level of reporting is focused on the advisory aspects of the TPRM program, such as the endorsement of the risk strategy, the awareness of the risk trends, the guidance of the risk culture, and the support of the risk initiatives. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are rare and exceptional, as they reflect the high-level and long-term vision and value of the TPRM program.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. Board of Directors, as this is the level of reporting where changes in TPRM program metrics are rare and exceptional. References:
* 1: 15 KPIs & Metrics to Measure the Success of Your TPRM Program | UpGuard
* 2: Third-party risk management metrics: Best practices to enhance your ... | Diligent
* 3: TPRM Metrics - Telling Your Risk Story - Shared Assessments | Shared Assessments

NEW QUESTION # 42
......

CTPRP dumps review - Professional Quiz Study Materials: https://troytec.examstorrent.com/CTPRP-exam-dumps-torrent.html